Interference - double play

default

default

Member
In a tournament this past weekend (ASA), runner on first with one out. Sharply hit ball toward the second baseman who was about 20-25 feet off of first. Fielder was interfered with by the runner heading to second. At the time of interference, the runner heading to first was only 1/3 to 1/2 way to first base. Field umpire immediately called both runners out. A couple of innings later, the field umpire told one of the coaches (from the team that had been interfered with) that he had been incorrect and that it should have been a dead ball with the runner heading to second being called out and the batter safe at first. I have seen the "assumed double play" called in high school softball but wasn't sure about ASA. Did the umpire have it right when he made the initial call or was he correct a couple of innings later when he spoke with the coach?
 
default

default

Member
The high school (NFHS) and ASA rules are pretty much identical for this play. If, in the umpire's judgment, the interference prevented a double play, then both runners can be called out.

While the actual rule is the same, the variable is going to be what the umpire saw and how he judged it. The double play isn't automatic- there has to be some reasonable chance of two outs having been earned without the interference.

On the initial call, if that's what the umpire judged happened, then he made the right call. But it is kind of odd that a few innings later he would tell you, essentially, that "my judgment was bad on that call and this is what it should have been".

You would probably have to see the play yourself to decide what you would call. Most of the time, the play you describe is only going to result in one out (on the runner who interfered).

To call two outs on this play, you have to assume that the fielder will cleanly field the ball, make the throw to second, have the shortstop handle the throw, make the tag, pivot, throw, then complete the play at first. A lot of assumptions there! Everything would have to go perfectly for the defense and the batter-runner would have to be kind of slow getting to first. It is within the umpire's right to judge that all of that would have happened perfectly, but in reality it might not be the most realistic judgment to make.

The "automatic double play" call is usually reserved for plays where the double play is more imminent and likely. For example, when the force out at second has already been made and the runner going into second interferes with the fielder or the throw to first. On those, the double play is much more likely to be turned- half of it has already been made!- and calling the batter-runner out requires many fewer assumptions.

The other play where this rule comes in is when a runner interfers with a fielder trying to catch a batted fly ball. The runner is out for the interference and the batter is out because a likely catch would have been made.
 
default

default

Member
Bretman, you responded "...To call two outs on this play, you have to assume that the fielder will cleanly field the ball, make the throw to second..."

Sorry, but I guess I should have been a little more clear. The first out would have been made by tagging the runner heading to second, not by making a throw to second. The fielder was interfered with by the runner a split second before she had a chance to field the ball. It would have been a "bang-bang" play where she fielded the ball, reached to tag the runner, and threw to first.
 
default

default

Member
Okay- got ya!

In that case, I would be much more likely to rule the double play. Both outs are likely to happen and the interference penalty should "set things right"- that is, the outcome should be whatever the defense was likely to get had they not been interfered with.

About the only way that would not be a double play is if the ball was hit slowly and the batter-runner was just about to touch first base when the other runner interfered. The speed of the runner(s), their relation to the bags, the distance of the throw and the likelihood of two outs having been made are are things the umpire can consider when forming his judgment.
 
default

default

Member
I believe, in this particular play, the second baseman actually fielded the ball and threw the batter out at first after the interference by the runner (contact was made with the fielder). Does this have any bearing on the umpire's decision?

Also in this same tournament, there was an interference call made on a batter during an attempt to score from third on a passed ball (contact was made between the batter and the pitcher covering, outside of the batter's box). The batter was called out and all base runners were returned to their bases. Is this the proper call?
 
default

default

Member
On the first play...

If interference was the initial call, then the subsequent throw to first is moot. The ball is dead at the instant of interference and anything that happens after that point, in effect, "doesn't count". So, it would be impossible to have one out for interference and another one on the throw to first.

On the second play...

That is the correct call when the batter interfers with a play at home- dead ball, batter out, runners return to last base touched.

In or out of the box doesn't really matter on this play. On a play at home, the batter must vacate any space required by the defense to make the play. The batter's box is not a sanctuary on a play at home.
 
Top