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Member
While watching some games at tournament this past weekend the TD and I got into a pretty good conversation. At the time I was watching some 10U games and something happened. Since the TD and another ump were sitting with me I decided to inquire about it.
The team batting had girls on 1st & 3rd with 1 out. The girl on first stole 2nd and the catcher made the throw to second. The girl on 3rd scored. The umpire sent her back to 3rd and stated " No Stealing Home ". I asked the TD what his modified rules said and he stated " No Stealing Home ". I told him in my opinion when the defense elected to make the play at second they put the ball in play and it was as good as a batted ball, therefore the girl on 3rd didnt steal. I told him we had played tournaments that stated no stealing home and some that said player on 3rd can only score on a force in or batted ball. In the first one when the defense put the ball in play it was no longer stealing and the second you didnt even try to send th girl.
The ump in the stands agreed that the girl on 3rd should have scored, the ump on the field didnt know for sure how it should have been called and the head ump said " No Stealing Home ". So my question is this, if the defense elects to put the ball in play...is it any longer stealing. So if the TD does not want girls scoring from 3rd his modified rule should read, player on 3rd can only score on a force in or batted ball.
The team batting had girls on 1st & 3rd with 1 out. The girl on first stole 2nd and the catcher made the throw to second. The girl on 3rd scored. The umpire sent her back to 3rd and stated " No Stealing Home ". I asked the TD what his modified rules said and he stated " No Stealing Home ". I told him in my opinion when the defense elected to make the play at second they put the ball in play and it was as good as a batted ball, therefore the girl on 3rd didnt steal. I told him we had played tournaments that stated no stealing home and some that said player on 3rd can only score on a force in or batted ball. In the first one when the defense put the ball in play it was no longer stealing and the second you didnt even try to send th girl.
The ump in the stands agreed that the girl on 3rd should have scored, the ump on the field didnt know for sure how it should have been called and the head ump said " No Stealing Home ". So my question is this, if the defense elects to put the ball in play...is it any longer stealing. So if the TD does not want girls scoring from 3rd his modified rule should read, player on 3rd can only score on a force in or batted ball.