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I saw a strange play in a baseball game last night - just wondering if the umpire called it correctly. Runner on first, no outs. The batter hits a pop-up down the first base line, obviously foul. The first baseman drifts to the ball but is run into by the runner on first. The second baseman makes the catch.
After the play, the base umpire calls runner interference (or obstruction, I can never keep it straight). He calls the runner out and places the batter on first. I know that this would be a correct call if the ball were fair, but the ball was foul. Did he get it right?
The strange thing is that the batter will get credit for a base hit on a foul ball.
After the play, the base umpire calls runner interference (or obstruction, I can never keep it straight). He calls the runner out and places the batter on first. I know that this would be a correct call if the ball were fair, but the ball was foul. Did he get it right?
The strange thing is that the batter will get credit for a base hit on a foul ball.