Rule question

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Yes- once the batted ball passes an infielder (excluding the pitcher) AND no other fielder has a chance to make a play, the runner hit is not out and the ball should remain live.

Once the umpires established for you that the ball had passed the infielder, the only other thing for them to confirm would be if, in their judgment, another fielder still had a chance to make a play.

If not, then they have misapplied a rule and that is 100% protestable.

 

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I really don't buy that though. Atom balls are the same way. Rocket right to the fielder, well hit ball, still an out in the book.

I'm not asking you to buy it, I'm just taking a guess concerning the HS reasoning behind the book entries. I personally believe the batter should not get a hit in this situation.

Len

 

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I'm not asking you to buy it, I'm just taking a guess concerning the HS reasoning behind the book entries. I personally believe the batter should not get a hit in this situation.

Len

I agree with your point as to why they award the girl a hit, and I also agree that personally it shouldn't be considered a hit. However if it's not considered a hit then I equally believe that it shouldn't be considered an at bat. Now ASA ruling states it's not a hit but does ASA state that it's an "at bat"?

 

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The ASA scoring rules don't list all of the situations that result in an official "at bat". Instead, they list a small number of situations that DO NOT equal an "at bat". For instance, a walk, hit by pitch, a sac fly, a sac bunt, etc.

Being awarded first base on runner interference isn't on the list, so you have to take it they intend a time at bat to be charged.

To me, it makes sense to charge a time at bat on this play. The reason a runner is out for interfering with a batted ball is the assumption that such interference prevents the defense from making a play or recording an out. The prevented out could come against another runner (fielder's choice) or the batter-runner and either of those would be an at bat.

By the same logic, it doesn't make sense for high school softball to credit the batter with a hit on this play. But the rule books are filled with rules or interpretations that aren't always logical!

 

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Ok, I need some help from Bretman on this. What if the runner struck by the ball results in the 3rd out? Is the batter-runner considered to have reached first base safely? (Rule 9, Section 3, Article 2)

This is something an umpire would have no reason to rule on but I can't see it being called a hit. So then it would be a hit unless it the struck runner resulted in the 3rd out?

I always recorded it as a fielders choice if it resulted in the third out ending the inning. Was I short changing the hitter on good stats? Giving play credit to the nearest fielder.

 

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High school rules say this is a hit, ASA rules say it isn't. I can see pros or cons for scoring it either way. But it's still confusing!

The NFHS and ASA scoring rules in their rule books aren't all that comprehensive. They really just cover the basics and don't get into too much detail. As such, there are some gaps in their scoring rules that don't account for many odd or unusual situations.

NCAA scoring rules are much more thorough. They kind of split the difference between the other two, make more sense and offer yet a third possibility!

Their rule says that it is up to the judgment of the official scorer to decide if the batted ball would have resulted in a hit for the batter. If they think it would have, score a hit. If not, then score a fielder's choice.

This agrees with the NCFA scoring guide, which is probably the most comprehensive guide for softball scoring that you're ever going to find.

(Link) http://nfca.org.ismmedia.com/ISM2/MultimediaManager/ATEC.pdf
http://nfca.org.ismmedia.com/ISM2/MultimediaManager/ATEC.pdf