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Got my 2013 "Participant Manual" and as I often do when bored in the winter doldrums I started reviewing the rules.
This time, something that I probably glossed over in the past kind of made me wonder. Under the pitching rule 6 at least four times when talking about the effect of an illegal pitch in which the batter hits the ball and all runners advance one base safely I see the phrase:
"If the batter hits the ball and reaches first base safely, and all other runners have advanced at least one base on the batted ball, the illegal pitch is nullified. All action as a result of the batted ball stands. No option is given. (OK so far, it's this next part that I'm having trouble with) When a runner passes a base, that runner is considered to have touched that base."
Why is this last sentence there?
So, illegal pitch called, runners first and second, batter strokes a single to center. Runner on second is waved home, and short-cuts third base missing it completely and scores. Has the defense forfieted the right to an appeal play because of the illegal pitch call?
This time, something that I probably glossed over in the past kind of made me wonder. Under the pitching rule 6 at least four times when talking about the effect of an illegal pitch in which the batter hits the ball and all runners advance one base safely I see the phrase:
"If the batter hits the ball and reaches first base safely, and all other runners have advanced at least one base on the batted ball, the illegal pitch is nullified. All action as a result of the batted ball stands. No option is given. (OK so far, it's this next part that I'm having trouble with) When a runner passes a base, that runner is considered to have touched that base."
Why is this last sentence there?
So, illegal pitch called, runners first and second, batter strokes a single to center. Runner on second is waved home, and short-cuts third base missing it completely and scores. Has the defense forfieted the right to an appeal play because of the illegal pitch call?